It's time for me to hold my hands up. When I've talked about different methods of valuing land for the purposes of LVT, whether it be self-assessment or taking house sale prices and deducting rebuild costs, I've made an assumption which, on reflection is not reliable. That assumption is that the sale price of land directly correlates to the rental price of land.
Both sale price and rental price are used within the current tax system. For instance, Council Tax is based on the assessed sale value of a house, whereas National Non-Domestic Rates are based on the assessed rental value of a commercial building.
The difference is important for LVT, because the charge is intended to be in proportion to the benefit the landholder is getting from having exclusive rights over a location at a given time, which, by definition, is its rental value. If the sale value does not directly correlate to the rental value then it is, a compromise valuation. I believe that there are examples where it could diverge significantly:
Consider two identical fields, A and B, used for agricultural purposes. I would expect them to attract the same rental price. Now imagine that field A is in an area where it is suspected that the local authority might give planning permission for a housing development, but field B isn't. Field A would have some speculative value, which would probably result in it having a higher sale price than field B, in spite of the fact that they both have the same rental value.
The very nature of sale prices means that they are also much more volatile than rental prices. In effect, the sale price of land is the predicted future rental values rolled up into a single payment. If there is an expectation that future rents will increase, selling prices can rise quickly on the basis of that speculation, while the current rental value remains relatively stable.
That isn't to say that rental price can't be derived from sale price, or that sale prices aren't an adequate proxy in the majority of cases, but I think it is important to acknowledge that they are not the same thing and allow for that when assessing any system of valuation.
I think this shows that one of the biggest problems with LVT is the name. "Land" can be misleading, as it can make people think of "soil" rather than "location" and "value" is ambiguous, as it isn't clear whether the value in question is the purchase price or the rental price. Maybe a term like "site rental value tax" would have been clearer. It would have certainly forced my thinking in the right direction.
Both sale price and rental price are used within the current tax system. For instance, Council Tax is based on the assessed sale value of a house, whereas National Non-Domestic Rates are based on the assessed rental value of a commercial building.
The difference is important for LVT, because the charge is intended to be in proportion to the benefit the landholder is getting from having exclusive rights over a location at a given time, which, by definition, is its rental value. If the sale value does not directly correlate to the rental value then it is, a compromise valuation. I believe that there are examples where it could diverge significantly:
Consider two identical fields, A and B, used for agricultural purposes. I would expect them to attract the same rental price. Now imagine that field A is in an area where it is suspected that the local authority might give planning permission for a housing development, but field B isn't. Field A would have some speculative value, which would probably result in it having a higher sale price than field B, in spite of the fact that they both have the same rental value.
The very nature of sale prices means that they are also much more volatile than rental prices. In effect, the sale price of land is the predicted future rental values rolled up into a single payment. If there is an expectation that future rents will increase, selling prices can rise quickly on the basis of that speculation, while the current rental value remains relatively stable.
That isn't to say that rental price can't be derived from sale price, or that sale prices aren't an adequate proxy in the majority of cases, but I think it is important to acknowledge that they are not the same thing and allow for that when assessing any system of valuation.
I think this shows that one of the biggest problems with LVT is the name. "Land" can be misleading, as it can make people think of "soil" rather than "location" and "value" is ambiguous, as it isn't clear whether the value in question is the purchase price or the rental price. Maybe a term like "site rental value tax" would have been clearer. It would have certainly forced my thinking in the right direction.






